i never said aircraft arent moving,
i said they cannot possibly barge without first having landed (because until that time they are aircraft, and aircraft ignore all units, which means they cannot move over them, a prerequisite for barging) and then, having landed, they become a 0cm move unit that cannot possibly move over an enemy unit with which to barge them. it can land in contact with a unit, sure, but it cannot come into contact with a unit and then continue to move, which is what is required to barge.
so, i should clarify. aircraft can indeed barge... if they land on a road and then next turn engage in an assault. otherwise, the only time they can pass across a unit is when they are ignoring them. the "war engines can barge" rule does not trump the "aircraft ignore all other units" rule any more than the passage "any hit that would affect an armoured vehicle can affect a war engine" trumps the "Ground units may only shoot at aircraft when making a flak attack" (note that "being an aircraft" is not in the list of exceptions to the rule where all shots at WE are treated like shots against AV)
the "if an aircraft landed on me i'd get out of the way" arguement rather ignores the fact that aircraft cannot land on units without making an assault on them in the process. they certainly cannot barge units they're not assaulting, and yet, these units would equally "get out of the way" take, for instance, a marine lander. it is clearly more than 5CM long, so it can easily position itself in such a way that landing in contact with a unit from the formation it is assaulting will also bring it into contact with a non-intermingled unit that it is not assaulting. and yet, only the unit it is assaulting has any requirement to move out of the way. even ignoring the ZOC issue, that is clearly not handled in the rules as a "well it can barge anyway" meanwhile, as another nail in that particular arguement, would you not get out of the way of a leman russ? they cant barge, and there are (or were) plenty of people out there who would argue that their real world counterparts certainly can
if you (mis)interpret the rules to allow aircraft barging, there is absolutely nothing to say that they can only barge units they directly stop on top of, that is certainly not a part of the regular barging rules, so why would it apply to aircraft? it's not written anywhere, there are no listed exceptions, a war engine can barge as long as it has movement left, and hasnt contacted an enemy AV, WE, or a piece of impassable terrain.
at which point, an aircraft is entirely capable of barging a unit in the formation (quite selectively i might add, given that in any other instance, including it seems, its own whim, it ignores them) and then continues to fly around whereever it wants before landing, and draging the unit it barged with it. so what is to stop a thunderhawk from flying across the table, grabbing the enemy supreme commander and two other friends, then flying back across the table to where the rest of the marine army is waiting to lend supporting fire to the incredibly lopsided clipping assault that just occurred?
as to the overwatch thing, it occurs when a unit has finished a parcel of its "movements" which allows you to overwatch at a formation before it unloads troops. for reasons unknown, it was decided that aircraft approach moves do not trigger overwatch, despite there being nothing in the rulebook to this effect (and infact, every part of the written rules say the opposite. the FAQ even suggests otherwise when it explains that even a unit initiating an action which includes a move portion (such as initiating an assault) will trigger overwatch, regardless of if the unit in question actually moves or even can do so. if you're in overwatch, and a plane lands in front of you, you cannot shoot it, because it didnt stop 'moving' it stopped flying, and thats a totally different thing. the situation with deathstrikes was resolved years ago, it's no longer a problem, so that concern is gone, aircraft can go back to actually following the rules
In the end, the FAQ has to be wrong for one simple reason. it says two things that contradict each other. in such an instance, there are three possible explainations. the first, is that one answer is wrong. the second, is that the other answer is wrong. the third, is that both answers are wrong. there is no fourth 'both answers are correct' option. they may have existed in a state of quantum entanglement where they where both correct (and both wrong) at the same time, but now that they have been observed, they can no longer exist superpositioned over each other.
personally i think that both answers are wrong, as detailed above, but the fact that one of them has to be should not be in dispute here.
_________________ ~Every Tool Is A Weapon, If You Hold It Right~
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